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Newsgroups: sci.math, sci.physics
From: David W. Cantrell <DWCantr...@sigmaxi.org>
Date: 26 Oct 2002 14:41:33 GMT
Local: Sat, Oct 26 2002 8:11 pm
Subject: Re: Is (a^x)*(1/a^x)=1?
"John Christiansen" <superkae...@mail1.stofanet.dk> wrote: No, not always! If there is anything of interest here, it is the fact > I suggest you re read the original post Helmut Wabnig, > what we really get is x/x which is always 1. that x/x is not always 1. Of course, if x is a _nonzero_ real or complex number, then x/x is indeed 1. But if x = 0, then x/x is normally considered to be undefined in mathematics. [FWIW, outside of mathematics, we find that 0/0 is NaN in standard floating-point arithmetic, 0 in J, and 1 in APL.] David Cantrell > "Helmut Wabnig" <hwXab...@aXon.at> skrev i en meddelelse -- > news:3dgkrugfkpgbbanf2qvrqff2mvlleb41ic@4ax.com... > > On 25 Oct 2002 09:32:48 -0700, vgopa...@rediffmail.com (V.Gopal) > > wrote: > > >Is the product of a^x and 1/a^x equal to unit or 1 both in physics and > > look what will happen if x >> infinite. -------------------- http://NewsReader.Com/ -------------------- Usenet Newsgroup Service You must Sign in before you can post messages.
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