> >Indeed, how could it be otherwise? SR > >knows nothing of acceleration, contains no terms in acceleration, and > >hence any effects of acceleration in SR must merely be an integrated > >compounding of many small increments of constant velocity. To deal > >with the effects of acceleration per se on matter we need GR.
> No, that's not right. In flat spacetime (regardless of whether anything > is accelerating) GR reduces to SR. GR tells you nothing about the > effects of acceleration on clocks that isn't already present in SR.
To save time, let me repeat what I arrived at at the end of my post.
First, I claim I am a veteran adherent of the "SR can too handle acceleration" insight. E.g., I realized a long time ago that claims that we need GR to analyze the Ehrenfest disk are nonsense.
Now, as so often happens -- not more than 10^9 times since I started posting -- even when I _claim_ I grok some objection/reservation/caveat, but suggest something subtly different, it is assumed by a person who for some reason does not see the subtle difference that I am mistaken about my mistake, and stuck on the first iteration.
In other words, when I repeat my question, you may think I am still asking if "SR is competent to handle accelerated objects" in a dumb old way, rather than the smart new way I claim I am asking the question.
My path is something like this
(1) mythical prehistory -- need GR to handle accelerated bodies
(I don't think I ever actually believed this)
(2) pre-current state -- acceleration in SR can be handled by a combination of integration (effect of a sequence of instantaneous rest frames) plus material effects (stress, etc).
(3) glimmer of nuance --
I have a momentary doubt that both of these programs correctly applied are sufficient to completely exhaust any "GR effects" of accelerated object in flat spacetime.
Now, I may always be wrong, but I claim I am probably wrong for a more subtle reason than whichever you first suggest. :-)
Let's look at our friend the Ehrenfest disk again. We proceed in flat space in an inertial frame of reference, and consider a disk spinning at steady state, which has already resolved all its inner length contraction/stress/transient issues.
Now, on the theme of "kinematics still works as before in fixed inertial frame", all points at radius r from the axis have instantaneous speed u = rw, and instantaneous acceleration a = rw^2. Ok. Now, suppose we choose to fix u, while allowing r to shrink and w to increase. We see that while u remains fixed, a will scale with omega.
Now, lets consider the effect on clocks at this radius. First, during any small time interval dt in the inertial frame, the clocks are moving with a given u, hence should appear to be running slower "special relativistically".
Agree?
Second, because of the increasing acceleration, the stress on the clocks will increase, which may affect their time keeping ability purely "mechanically". I.e. (hold your fire, Daryl), they may undergo physical effects which we would not refer to as "time dilation", but nonetheless affect the rate at which the clocks run compared to a unstressed reference.
Agree?
So, we have possibly mechanically affected clocks further running at an apparently aberrant rate, even accounting for the mechanical effects, via Lorentz transformation.
I hope you agree so far.
Now, according to the programme "SR contains all effects of acceleration in flat spacetime", we are apparently finished. There are no more possible physical effects on the clocks, and hence, first correcting for mechanical effects of acceleration, we predict any further disagreement with clocks at rest in the inertial frame according to the Lorentz transformation.
Now, have we exhausted the possible effects of acceleration on clocks, or not? You would claim that we have, and I hope I have at least stated your programme fairly and convincingly. I am however not 100% convinced we have exhausted the physical description. Here's why.
First, back to pure SR a moment. I claim, though I have not struggled with this in a while, that _most_ of the effects of SR can be predicted macroscopically by analyzing the behavior of a flotilla of space ships which keep themselves in formation by exchanging timed radar pulses. In a fixed inertial frame, the observer sees the flotilla is making "mistakes" by ignoring the differing forward, backward and lateral propogation of light in their own rest frame. _We_ see the effects of their relative motion past us, but they blithly ignore it.
Almost, but not quite "explain" SR, I think. The catch is, in order to make this picture consistent, we have to reach inside systems on the ships we have not analyzed, and _postulate_ their adherence to SR. And I believe, if we then analyzed these smaller systems, we would find yet smaller systems within 'em which we again had to resort to postulation on. So we seem to be onto something, but we can't quite close the loop, and ultimate must adopt the Lorentz invariance of physics as a postulate, maddeningly hinted at by a kind of infinite recursion.
Ok.
Now, I'm thinking of your nice analysis of gravitational redshift in terms of the bow and stern of an accelerating space ship, and doppler effects. Here is a case where we get the gravitational/accelerational equivalence effects of GR for free from SR. This would tend to substantiate your claim that all we need is SR to analyze any possible effect of acceleration in flat space time. But I'm also thinking about this infinite recursion thing ...
Proposed moral: there may be acceleration effects on matter, beyond those predicted macroscopically by a close application of SR to analyzing the components (like the space ship doppler red shit), and beyond continuum mechanistic constituent relation effects ... like stress strain, etc.
These might correspond to something like "stresses and strain in the nuclei", below our level of analysis with SR, which would in fact need the machinery of GR to tease out, albeit we remained in flat gravitation free space.
I'm not saying this is necessarily so -- I'm trying to argue that it may not be altogether stupid to consider the possibility ("You know, what professor Einstein says is not so stupid ... " :-).
> >Amazing how many iteration the understanding goes through. ... > You need one more iteration. If space is flat, there is no > need for GR, and, in fact, GR gives you nothing more than > SR in that case.
I understand what you are saying, I claim, so you must look for my reservation on some other plane.
> No. There is no purely GR-ish effect in flat spacetime.
Maybe. I only claim, via above analysis, that my doubt is not-so-stupid, though it may appear tautological that SR is GR in flat spacetime, so there is nothing more to say. We may lose something in the simpler machinery.
Anyway, here is a thought experiment -- I have no preconceived idea of what it may illustrate, but I would like to know what you think. I think somebody recently asked this besides me.
Consider an Ehrenfest disk again, now masquerading as a centrifuge, and consider the clocks at r, again. Are you certain we will have exhausted any effects on these clocks tending to upset their synchronization with inertial clocks by first considering their speed, next an mechanical effects of the centrifugal acceleration?
If we have, then what has happened to the equivalence principle? These clocks appear to be at the bottom of a gravity well equivalent wrt a clock on the hub, but I don't see any possibility for an equivalent effect ... we don't have Doppler any more to appeal to, unless some kind of relativistic transverse Doppler effect?
Another possibility is that a sufficiently fine "mechanical" analysis of the effects of acceleration would in effect steal from the machinery of GR and significant residual effect -- but possibly not to an endless number of zeros.
I'm going to leave any comments on the rest out for brevity -- but I again protest that I have long understood that SR can indeed handle accelerated matter -- I just for some reason feel uncertainty that we have exhausted the subject.
> > Uncle Al <Uncle...@hate.spam.net> who lowliest coat tassels I am unworthy to kiss, wrote in message <news:3DB81FA6.ADDC528E@hate.spam.net>... > > > Given any achievable velocities V1 and V2 and any finite lightspeed, > > > the sum of the velocities as viewed by any inertial observer cannot > > > exceed
> > > (V1 + V2)/[1 + (V1)(V2)/c^2]
> > What? Given any "achievable velocities" v1 and v2, the sum is bounded > > by 2c. Since the frame in which the sum is 2c - eps is an inertial > > frame, that is your bound: v1 + v2 < 2c.
> Newtonian physics and Galilean transforms are empirically invalid > udner relativistic conditions. I don't know how your universe > operates, but in mine and everybody else's the view of lightspeed and > directly opposed velocities in any reference frame cannot exceed > lightspeed - including lightspeed vs. lightspeed. This is trivially > demonstrated in counter-circulating particle accelerators such as CERN > or FermiLab.
> [snip incredible bulk of ignorant spew invalidated by common > observation]
Same to you, Al, you insulting sonofabitch.
I merely pointed out from your ambiguous sentence that the maximum speed difference between two arbitrary velocities is 2c in any inertial frame. That's c to the right of you and c to the left of you. Get it? What that has to do with the empirical invalidity of Newtonian physics and Galilean transforms is beyond me, and any thinking individual.
Aha ... I see your idiocy. You are one of those people who are completely blind to the frame dependence of "relative velocity". Hell, not only are you blind to it, you even stated the concept in equivalent words, and _still_ screwed it up. I quote from the infallible master:
"the sum of the velocities as viewed by any inertial observer"
Bizarre. You suffer from the "relative velocity must be stated in rest frame of one of two bodies" disease so badly that even if _you_ happen to state an equivalent form which leaves your sacred semantic "relative velocity" untouched and inviolate, you unconsciously translate it back to your form, and so spew nonsense. If a particle moves to my right with u2 = c - e1, and if a second particle moves to my left with u2 = c - e2, then what is the bound on u1 + u2?
I'll give you time to think about this weighty proposition.
Logic impaired half-bakeds like you make one more sympathetic to the non-standard logic-half-bakes. You have about their wit and wisdom, and so there is a fit meeting of the minds. So to speak.
Relative velocity v1 - v2 is sensibly viewed as a physical object with frame dependent representation. Duh. And, given a frame in which we represent the velocity of particle 1 as v1 and the velocity of particle 2 as v2, guess what the representation of "relative velocity" is in that frame? I know you can do it, unless that chemistry accident fried your brain as well as your skin.
But oh, the beauty of it ... even given that askking for a frame dependent representation of "relative velocity" is like asking a Catholic to consider the sexual relation of the virgin to the Holy Spirit, you yourself came up with an alternate formulation of the heretical concept.
Oh, what the hell do I care what you think. You may once have been a brilliant man, but now you are a bitter old spewpot.
> >> Yes, but the difference is that in the three-clock case, no > >> clock is physically accelerated. That should put an end to > >> the idea that time dilation is something physical > >> that happens to clocks when they accelerate.
> >Good Lord! Somebody else knows which tin has the Shinola.
> I have no idea what that means, but since I think I was > agreeing with you, I'll take that as a compliment.
Coming from that character assassin, I wouldn't take any sign of agreement as a compliment.
Uncle Al has developed a severe psychological disorder, possibly occasioned by an undiagnosed organic brain lesion, causing him to gratuitiously insult people exhibiting any shade of even temporary doubt or disagreement with anything which drips from his putrid bile spewing lips, even in vehicles which both begin and end in, however severly misplaced, compliments -- kind of an ascii Turet's syndrome.
I independently recognized the utility of Al's construction, though I am not sympathetic with your characterization including the tendentious "physical", but once mildly point out something in relativistic kinematics which he was not prepared immediately to grasp and he trips off line in some kind of school boy insult session -- like Paul Lutus, before degeneration finally mercifully curtailed his posting activity altogether.
Too much organic solvent absorbed through the skin, maybe.
You don't even need jiggers. Just note the clock times at the various meetings, and you won't get into complications over interactions between the clocks.
May I refer all doubters to the little book "Relativity and Common Sense" by Hermann Bondi (Heinemann 1965) which sets everything out logically with minimal use of heavy mathematics.
"Uncle Al" <Uncle...@hate.spam.net> wrote in message
> [snip twin paradox experiment setup] > CLOCK 1: That's our clock. It sits stationary in our inertial > reference frame with a little jigger sticking out. Touch the jigger
> > > > When you can define time, then maybe your input will be interesting. > > > > Clocks do not measure the passage of time, they 'register' an internal > > > > velocity (of some mass or system of mass) times it's displacement, > > > > either linear or angular depending upon the type of clock, an internal > > > > velocity that must change in order for the registered 'ticks' to get out > > > > of sync with another clock.
> > > Time > > > o regarded as a coordinate dimension and required by relativity > > > theory, along with three spatial dimensions, to > > > specify completely the location of any event.
> > As perceived: A motion through ordered changes in state of the universe.
> > As it enters physics: The logical displacement of the initial state of a > > closed system and the state of the same system through an arbitrary and > > homogenous sequence of changes. Those cyclic changes in a sub-system > > (also virtually closed) in particular being regarded as "regular", and > > arbitrarily designated as a standard unit of change. The homogenous > > sequence of ordered microscopic changes (events) in the universe > > constitute a universal time-line, "moved" through equally by all > > particles, since all particles simultaneously exist in every state > > subtending any "duration".
Can you provide a consistent reversal of two events with respect to two inertial frames? Do not the same events occur in the universe wrt the twins during the time between their departure and the time of their reunion on Earth? How can you say that each has progressed through time at different rates when the time that they have moved through is perfectly equal from every FOR? Though the time that was "registered" by each may differ, this does not detract from the reality that they were moving through time at equal rates, it shows only that orbits and cyclic phenomenon in general are subject to physical change, which is no less the "very" basis of any type of kinematics. This is the reason that an accelerated clock is not a valid standard. As an analogy an an the acceleration and/or change in temperature and/or external pressure acting on a meter stick, results in a stick that no longer registers the unit meter correctly, and if launched into orbit where the ambient field differs then the same applies. Real clocks are just meter sticks in motion about an axis, is this really that difficult for you guys to grasp? You are so wrapped up in the abstract relationships between manufactured units that you have lost all touch with fundamental reality. The solution is always hidden in the details, those fucking details;-)
> > > When you can define time, then maybe your input will be interesting. > > > Clocks do not measure the passage of time, they 'register' an internal > > > velocity (of some mass or system of mass) times it's displacement, > > > either linear or angular depending upon the type of clock, an internal > > > velocity that must change in order for the registered 'ticks' to get out > > > of sync with another clock.
> > Radioactivity, shithead. You look at the declining rate of decay and > > that is your clock. Why don't you tell us where the "internal > > velocity" is in radioactivity?
> It's not too fucking complicated that even you can't understand Al, but > only agglomerations of quanta produce radioactive decay.
Not on your nellie. Study the nature of the weak interaction before committing further blunders in ignorance.
> Which of the > involved quanta has zero velocity shit for brains?
Tell us which quanta are involved where. Here is the typical process:
n -> p + e + nu-e-bar
> Controlled fission, > hmmm Al, how the hell did that happen I wonder, I mean, radioactive > decay is independently spontaneous, uncaused, isn't it? Git.
You don't need fission, controlled or otherwise, to make a clock based on radioactive decay. You are out of your depth and it shows.
> > > When you can define time, then maybe your input will be interesting. > > > Clocks do not measure the passage of time, they 'register' an internal > > > velocity (of some mass or system of mass) times it's displacement, > > > either linear or angular depending upon the type of clock, an internal > > > velocity that must change in order for the registered 'ticks' to get out > > > of sync with another clock.
> > Time > > o regarded as a coordinate dimension and required by relativity > > theory, along with three spatial dimensions, to > > specify completely the location of any event.
> As perceived: A motion through ordered changes in state of the universe.
> As it enters physics: The logical displacement of the initial state of a > closed system and the state of the same system through an arbitrary and > homogenous sequence of changes. Those cyclic changes in a sub-system > (also virtually closed) in particular being regarded as "regular", and > arbitrarily designated as a standard unit of change. The homogenous > sequence of ordered microscopic changes (events) in the universe > constitute a universal time-line, "moved" through equally by all > particles, since all particles simultaneously exist in every state > subtending any "duration".
Philosophese mumbo jumbo for saying that time is what is measured by counting the cycles of a repetitive process.
> > "V.Gopal" <vgopa...@rediffmail.com> wrote in message > > news:38af3945.0210240748.1fc8e6cb@posting.google.com... > > > In Special Relativity Theory the basis of "Twin Paradox" is that > > > "moving clocks run slow". What is not clear is that, when a 'clock > > > runs slow' whether its frequency continuously decreases or not. Can > > > anyone clarify this point?
> > If a clock's frequency continuously decreases, it needs winding up.
> > Franz Heymann > It needs no winding up, let it stop. What I want to know is how do we > express or convey continuously and uniformly decreasing rate of > counting. Can we know when we reach zero if the rate of counting > decreases uniformly and continuously? > Here 'counting' does not divide time into equal intervals and in this > case because there is no linear or angular displacement, time appears > to 'shrink' continuously. How can we canvey rate of shrinkage of time?
I have not a clue as to what you might mean. I do have a strong suspicion that you don't know either.
> > When you can define time, then maybe your input will be interesting. > > Clocks do not measure the passage of time, they 'register' an internal > > velocity (of some mass or system of mass) times it's displacement,
> Oops! Make that inverse of velocity times displacement.
You nneed not have bothered. It is still nonsense.
> > > > Given any achievable velocities V1 and V2 and any finite lightspeed, > > > > the sum of the velocities as viewed by any inertial observer cannot > > > > exceed
> > > > (V1 + V2)/[1 + (V1)(V2)/c^2]
> > > What? Given any "achievable velocities" v1 and v2, the sum is bounded > > > by 2c. Since the frame in which the sum is 2c - eps is an inertial > > > frame, that is your bound: v1 + v2 < 2c.
> > Newtonian physics and Galilean transforms are empirically invalid > > udner relativistic conditions. I don't know how your universe > > operates, but in mine and everybody else's the view of lightspeed and > > directly opposed velocities in any reference frame cannot exceed > > lightspeed - including lightspeed vs. lightspeed. This is trivially > > demonstrated in counter-circulating particle accelerators such as CERN > > or FermiLab.
> > [snip incredible bulk of ignorant spew invalidated by common > > observation]
> Same to you, Al, you insulting sonofabitch.
> I merely pointed out from your ambiguous sentence that the maximum > speed difference between two arbitrary velocities is 2c in any > inertial frame. That's c to the right of you and c to the left of > you. Get it? What that has to do with the empirical invalidity of > Newtonian physics and Galilean transforms is beyond me, and any > thinking individual.
> Aha ... I see your idiocy. You are one of those people who are > completely blind to the frame dependence of "relative velocity". > Hell, not only are you blind to it, you even stated the concept in > equivalent words, and _still_ screwed it up. I quote from the > infallible master:
> "the sum of the velocities as viewed by any inertial observer"
> Bizarre. You suffer from the "relative velocity must be stated in > rest frame of one of two bodies" disease
I look forward to reading how Uncle Al responds to that. {:-)
Ed, there is no such concept in physics as a "relative velocity" in the abstract. The concept is restricted to such situations as "The velocity of A relative to B" or "The velocity of B relative to A". The former is a measurement made in the frame in which B is at rest. Vice versa for the latter.
The situation under dicussion which leads to a maximum speed of 2c does *not* involve the velocity of anything relative to anything else. It is a "velocity of approach" of two objects *relative to me*, i.e. in the frame in which *I* am stationary.
[...]
> Relative velocity v1 - v2 is sensibly viewed as a physical object with > frame dependent representation
You are simply privately redefining the concept of an approach velocity of two objects, as measured in the frame in which I am stationary. It is unnecessary.
> You don't even need jiggers. Just note the clock times at the various > meetings, and you won't get into complications over interactions between the > clocks.
[snip]
That is what the jiggers do. The only way to synchronize two clocks is for them to be "local." Touching does the job without argument. One wouldn't have two spaceships traveling 180 degrees head on at 0.999c skim within a millimeter of each other in the real world for fear of insurance premiums skyrocketing. It does make an entirely satisfactory thought experiment.
"Looking" ship to ship won't do it for obvious reasons and argumentative ones.
Special Relativity is a self-consistent hyperbolic geometry. It cannot be "disproven" any more than Euclid can be disproven. Both are rigorously derived and neither contains any errors. However, postulates are always ripe for attack!
Plane geometry is the logic of zero curvature (Euclid's Fifth Postulate). If we assume positive or negative curvatures we get elliptic and hyperbolic geometries whose limiting zero-curvature cases are Euclid. Newton tacitly assumed lightspeed is infinite. If we assume lightspeed is c we get Special Relativity, whose limiting case for low velocities is Newton.
General Relativity assumes the Equivalence Principle, that inertial (push a car) and gravitational (lift a car) masses are rigorously identical. Spacetime curvature immediately follows - all masses must fall identically in vacuum (pursue local parallel geodesic paths) - and then GR. If we had two masses that did not fall identically, GR would be falsified. Einstein would fall to more inclusive theory as Euclid and Newton so succumbed.
Folks have looked real hard for two such test masses, starting with Galileo some 412 years ago and now sensitive to one part in ten trillion relative. 100% failure. There is only one examinable mass property that has *never* been examined. It can be quantitatively calculated from first principles. Paired test masses can be created that are 99.9% divergent vs. overall rest mass.
bri...@encompasserve.org wrote in message <news:HZFngttMi620@eisner.encompasserve.org>... > In article <qIvp4DLA9...@eisner.encompasserve.org>, bri...@encompasserve.org writes: > > The vector sum of two velocities, v1 and v2 in a particular > > reference frame is itself a vector. It is not, quite, a velocity, > > but it is expresed in units of velocity. If the individual > > vectors have values whose magnitudes are strictly less than c > > then the vector sum will have a magnitude that is strictly > > less than 2c.
> > As I said, this sum is not the velocity of any particular object > > in any particular reference frame. Instead, it is the time rate of > > change in the (vector) separation between the two objects whose > > velocities are v1 and v2 as viewed in the reference frame within > > which those objects have those velocities.
> Damn. I accuse Uncle Al of a sign error and I make the exact same > sign error myself.
"Signenerratum muss man nicht sich beitten an" (We don't bother ourselves with sign errors)
Provide real German and attribute it to Planck or Einstein. :-)
> Take the _difference_ of those velocties, not their sum if you > want the time rate of change in their vector separation.
Well, we know what we mean on that score.
I've been championing the idea recently "relative velocity" is a physical object with certain transformation properties, whose representation in a particular frame is v1 - v2, individual velocities expressed in that frame. The correct rule to transform this object is to transform v1, v2 to the new frame then form the difference again. This rule includes the special case where we transform to a frame where either v1, v2 = 0 -- the expected frame for "relativistic velocity addition".
Ironically it is kind of unrelativistic in outlook to insist that a physical object can only be represented in a certain frame of reference -- why should "relative velocity" be any different?
Thanks for taking the time to inject a note of moderation.
In article <2a0cceff.0210260740.1ff51...@posting.google.com>, nullde...@aol.com (Edward Green) writes:
>I've been championing the idea recently "relative velocity" is a >physical object with certain transformation properties, whose >representation in a particular frame is v1 - v2, individual velocities >expressed in that frame.
The name "relative velocity" is taken (as you well know). Use "closing velocity" or "velocity of approach" for the above. We've been over this before, as I'm sure you recall.
Mati Meron | "When you argue with a fool, me...@cars.uchicago.edu | chances are he is doing just the same"
: In <3DB81FA6.ADDC5...@hate.spam.net> Uncle Al <Uncle...@hate.spam.net> writes: : : [Three-clock version of the twin paradox] : : Hey, that's good. Really good!
Sure, the experiment is good, but the claim that "nothing runs slow in any reference frame" that preceded it was just hubristic hogwash. Besides, the twin paradox is sort of mis-named.
In the 2-clock version, there is no paradox. One clock runs slow, and it is the one that got accelerated. The reason the twin paradox was called a paradox is that if you IGNORE acceleration, if you JUST look at relative velocities, then the situation looks SYMMETRIC: EACH twin thinks about the other that "he started out where I am, he moved away from me at a high speed for a while, and then moved back to me at a similarly high rate of speed". If "moving clocks run slow" were all there was to it, then each would be expecting the other's clock to run slow. THAT paradox (which IS a paradox) is resolved only by noting that one of the clocks got accelerated and the other didn't. You could actually produce the same relative-velocity progression while accelerating BOTH twins in opposite directions, but if you did that, then when they got back together, their clocks would agree; again, NO paradox.
In the 3-clock scenario, the first question is, IS there any paradox to resolve?? As far as Al took it, he got to the point where the sum of the numbers on the slips excreted by clocks 2 and 3 was less than the number on the slip excreted by clock 1, but he DIDN'T SAY ANYTHING ABOUT what it looks like from the viewpoint of the other 2 clocks.
The situation is almost symmetric (and symmetry is NECESSARY BEFORE there can be any paradox to resolve) in that all 3 clocks are turned on by a 1st encounter with a 2nd clock and turned off by a subsequent encounter with a 3rd clock. But if we compare the later off- encounter to the earlier on-encounter, for all 3 clocks, the differences are as follows: Clock 1 has its off-encounter with a clock arriving at the same speed but from the opposite direction, while clock 2 has its off-encounter with a clock arriving at a higher speed from the same direction, and clock 3 has its off-encounter with a clock arriving a lower speed from the same direction.
Is there a paradox here OR NOT?
-- --- "It's difficult ... you need to be united to have any strength, but internal issues have to be addressed." --- E. Ray Lewis, on liberalism in America
: Yes, but the difference is that in the three-clock case, no : clock is physically accelerated. That should put an end to : the idea that time dilation is something physical : that happens to clocks when they accelerate.
No, it doesn't. You still haven't resolved the paradox. If the situation is really symmetrical among the 3 clocks, then you have paradox. As Uncle Al originally numbered it, the sum of the times on the slips from clocks 2 and 3 was less than the time on the slip from clock 1. But since all 3 clocks were started by their encounter with a 2nd clock and stopped by their encounter with a 3rd clock, his reasoning is going to lead to the conclusion that there can exist positive rational numbers x,y, and z such that x>y+z AND y>x+z AND z>x+y. This is obviously impossible. How do YOU D.MC. break the symmetry?
: >Still, your prevarication has the valuable property of showing that it : >is not any intrinsic effect of acceleration on the clock which results : >in the "paradox", but only on the trajectory. : : Exactly. In Special Relativity, time dilation is a feature of : spacetime, not a feature of clocks.
Time dilation is self-contradictory bullshit until you can explain this paradox.
-- --- "It's difficult ... you need to be united to have any strength, but internal issues have to be addressed." --- E. Ray Lewis, on liberalism in America
> : In <3DB81FA6.ADDC5...@hate.spam.net> Uncle Al <Uncle...@hate.spam.net> writes: > : > : [Three-clock version of the twin paradox] > : > : Hey, that's good. Really good!
> Sure, the experiment is good, but the claim > that "nothing runs slow in any reference frame" > that preceded it was just hubristic hogwash. > Besides, the twin paradox is sort of mis-named.
If you knew anything about Special Relativity you would be astonished at your public self-abasement. Either get to a library and get educated before you brain fart, or bother religious newsgroups where any borborygmus is holy writ deserving of elicited mass defecation in support.
You know nothing. You are an embarassment. You don't have the intelligence to pull 85 years of physics out of your bellybutton ab initio. You criticize, but you offer nothing in exchange. "The food was awful and there wasn't much of it, either." Go eat somewhere you pay the tab yourself.
[snip]
> Is there a paradox here OR NOT?
Relativistic mu-mesons from cosmic ray collisions high in the atmosphere have explicit empirical half-lives by the SR rule longer than locally generated low energy (slow) mu-mesons. So do relativistic accelerator beams of unstable particles or nuclei. Go ahead, jackass, discredit SR while explaining the observation. To criticize is to volunteer.
If you don't know, don't voluminously spew hot air loudly illuminating your loathsome ignorance.
-- Uncle Al http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/ (Toxic URL! Unsafe for children and most mammals) "Quis custodiet ipsos custodes?" The Net!
> da...@cogentex.com (Daryl McCullough) writes: > : Yes, but the difference is that in the three-clock case, no > : clock is physically accelerated. That should put an end to > : the idea that time dilation is something physical > : that happens to clocks when they accelerate.
> No, it doesn't. You still haven't resolved the paradox. > If the situation is really symmetrical among the 3 clocks, > then you have paradox. As Uncle Al originally numbered it, > the sum of the times on the slips from clocks 2 and 3 > was less than the time on the slip from clock 1. > But since all 3 clocks were started by their encounter > with a 2nd clock and stopped by their encounter with a 3rd > clock, his reasoning is going to lead to the conclusion > that there can exist positive rational numbers x,y, and z such that > x>y+z AND y>x+z AND z>x+y. This is obviously impossible. > How do YOU D.MC. break the symmetry?
Special Relativity is a hyperbolic geometry. Relativistic velocities are macroscopic hyperbolic 4-rotations. The algebra isn't linear. Everything works by the book. Try reading the book.
-- Uncle Al http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/ (Toxic URL! Unsafe for children and most mammals) "Quis custodiet ipsos custodes?" The Net!
In article <3DBAF911.F66BC...@hate.spam.net>, Uncle Al
<Uncle...@hate.spam.net> wrote: > George Greene wrote:
[snip]
> Either get to a library and get educated > before you brain fart, or bother religious newsgroups where any > borborygmus is holy writ deserving of elicited mass defecation in support.
^^^^^^^^^^^
I like it. Thanks for the vocabulary building.
[snip]
-- --------------------------- | BBB b \ barbara minus knox at iname stop com | B B aa rrr b | | BBB a a r bbb | | B B a a r b b | | BBB aa a r bbb | -----------------------------
> > > > When you can define time, then maybe your input will be > interesting. > > > > Clocks do not measure the passage of time, they 'register' an > internal > > > > velocity (of some mass or system of mass) times it's displacement, > > > > either linear or angular depending upon the type of clock, an > internal > > > > velocity that must change in order for the registered 'ticks' to > get out > > > > of sync with another clock.
> > > Radioactivity, shithead. You look at the declining rate of decay > and > > > that is your clock. Why don't you tell us where the "internal > > > velocity" is in radioactivity?
> > It's not too fucking complicated that even you can't understand Al, > but > > only agglomerations of quanta produce radioactive decay.
> Not on your nellie. Study the nature of the weak interaction before > committing further blunders in ignorance.
> > Which of the > > involved quanta has zero velocity shit for brains?
> Tell us which quanta are involved where. Here is the typical process:
> n -> p + e + nu-e-bar
All quanta are involved in every interaction. No closed system exists other than the universe itself.
> > Controlled fission, > > hmmm Al, how the hell did that happen I wonder, I mean, radioactive > > decay is independently spontaneous, uncaused, isn't it? Git.
> You don't need fission, controlled or otherwise, to make a clock based > on radioactive decay.
You need radioactive decay, a physical event with physical causes. What's your point?
> You are out of your depth and it shows.
Only your bared ignorance is showing.
The launching of a system into orbit introduces physical changes to the system. Cyclic systems in particular are those under consideration, and the magnitude of any effects on these will depend upon the actual physical makeup of the system. Given forty different "types" of clocks that were initially synchronized, "none" of those will be ticking at the same rate after the ship that contains them assumes its final orbital trajectory. Will you argue this point? If you think it incorrect then please cite the evidence to the contrary, keeping in mind that a pendulum clock will be one of those on board, and that a electric motor driven clock will be another type. How will the change in gravitational potential affect the pendulum, and how will the change in electromagnetic potential affect the motor driven clock? Let another clock be a vertically oscillating spring, how will the acceleration affect the frequency of occultation? What type of clock can you imagine that will not undergo physical changes when accelerated or when relocated to a different gravitational and/or electromagnetic potential?
Go roll over on your back and piss on yourself like the well trained and defeated dog that you are.
> > > > When you can define time, then maybe your input will be > interesting. > > > > Clocks do not measure the passage of time, they 'register' an > internal > > > > velocity (of some mass or system of mass) times it's displacement, > > > > either linear or angular depending upon the type of clock, an > internal > > > > velocity that must change in order for the registered 'ticks' to > get out > > > > of sync with another clock.
> > > Radioactivity, shithead. You look at the declining rate of decay > and > > > that is your clock. Why don't you tell us where the "internal > > > velocity" is in radioactivity?
> > It's not too fucking complicated that even you can't understand Al, > but > > only agglomerations of quanta produce radioactive decay.
> Not on your nellie. Study the nature of the weak interaction before > committing further blunders in ignorance.
> > Which of the > > involved quanta has zero velocity shit for brains?
> Tell us which quanta are involved where. Here is the typical process:
> n -> p + e + nu-e-bar
All quanta are involved in every interaction. No closed system exists other than the universe itself.
> > Controlled fission, > > hmmm Al, how the hell did that happen I wonder, I mean, radioactive > > decay is independently spontaneous, uncaused, isn't it? Git.
> You don't need fission, controlled or otherwise, to make a clock based > on radioactive decay.
You need radioactive decay, a physical event with physical causes. What's your point?
> You are out of your depth and it shows.
Only your bared ignorance is showing.
The launching of a system into orbit introduces physical changes to the system. Cyclic systems in particular are those under consideration, and the magnitude of any effects on these will depend upon the actual physical makeup of the system. Given forty different "types" of clocks that were initially synchronized, "none" of those will be ticking at the same rate after the ship that contains them assumes its final orbital trajectory. Will you argue this point? If you think it incorrect then please cite the evidence to the contrary, keeping in mind that a pendulum clock will be one of those on board, and that a electric motor driven clock will be another type. How will the change in gravitational potential affect the pendulum, and how will the change in electromagnetic potential affect the motor driven clock? Let another clock be a vertically oscillating spring, how will the acceleration affect the frequency of oscillation? What type of clock can you imagine that will not undergo physical changes when accelerated or when relocated to a different gravitational and/or electromagnetic potential?
Go roll over on your back and piss on yourself like the well trained and defeated dog that you are.
> > > If a clock's frequency continuously decreases, it needs winding up.
> > > Franz Heymann > > It needs no winding up, let it stop. What I want to know is how do we > > express or convey continuously and uniformly decreasing rate of > > counting. Can we know when we reach zero if the rate of counting > > decreases uniformly and continuously? > > Here 'counting' does not divide time into equal intervals and in this > > case because there is no linear or angular displacement, time appears > > to 'shrink' continuously. How can we canvey rate of shrinkage of time?
> I have not a clue as to what you might mean. > I do have a strong suspicion that you don't know either.
> Franz Heymann
I know what I mean. Let me make it simpler. A train enteres station at a speed of say, 100miles/hr and brake is applied to it. At the enterence you stand and begin to count the number of compartments as the train begins to decelerate. If the speed of the train was constant the rate of counting of number of compartments would be uniform. That is, the interval of time between any two consecutive numberes would be same. When the train is decelerating the interval of time between 1 and 2 is less than that between 2 and 3 and so on. I call this as as 'continuous decrease in the rate of counting of numbers'. We cannot see both the ends of a period of time. As long as the train is moving counting is possible. When the speed approaches zero and becomes zero there is no way to know at what point of time the train came to a rest because, in L/T, L-->0 and T --->infinity. If we do not have the decelerating object in front of us, there is no way to remember the period of time that was spent without activity between two numbers. No expression can convey decreasing rate of counting, which is same as angular deceleration.
: George Greene wrote: : > Sure, the experiment is good, but the claim : > that "nothing runs slow in any reference frame" : > that preceded it was just hubristic hogwash. : > Besides, the twin paradox is sort of mis-named. :
: If you knew anything about Special Relativity you would be astonished : at your public self-abasement. Either get to a library and get : educated before you brain fart,
That is not a refutation.
: You know nothing. You are an embarassment. You don't have the : intelligence to pull 85 years of physics out of your bellybutton ab : initio.
That is not a refutation.
: You criticize, but you offer nothing in exchange.
You don't even criticize. You just humiliate yourself with immature scatological flatulence.
: "The food : was awful and there wasn't much of it, either." Go eat somewhere you : pay the tab yourself. : : [snip] : : > Is there a paradox here OR NOT? : : Relativistic mu-mesons from cosmic ray collisions high in the : atmosphere have explicit empirical half-lives by the SR rule longer : than locally generated low energy (slow) mu-mesons.
That is not an answer to the question.
: If you don't know, don't voluminously spew hot air loudly illuminating : your loathsome ignorance.
Why not? In saner circles, people will actually bother to correct it instead of just rehashing playground insults. -- --- "It's difficult ... you need to be united to have any strength, but internal issues have to be addressed." --- E. Ray Lewis, on liberalism in America
: Nothing runs "slow" in any refernce frame. When otherwise identical : clocks - one of which sustained a velocity relative to the other - are : brought together to compare, one is seen to have less elapsed time : than its twin due to its hyperbolic rotation through 4-space.
This is INCONSISTENT BULLSHIT, Al. If one clock sustained a velocity relative to the other, then THE OTHER SUSTAINED A VELOCITY RELATIVE TO THE ONE, as well. Therefore, if the one is "seen to have less" elapsed time than the other, the other MUST be "seen to have less" elapsed time than the one.
SINCE THIS *CANNOT*HAPPEN* -- since you cannot exhibit 2 pieces of paper, each with a positive number on them, where each number is less than the other, you are not saying anything.
Hey, Daryl: you are not saying anything, either, but you should.
: >If one clock sustained a velocity relative to the other, : >then THE OTHER SUSTAINED A VELOCITY RELATIVE TO THE ONE, : >as well. Therefore, if the one is "seen to have less" : >elapsed time than the other, the other MUST be "seen : >to have less" elapsed time than the one. : > : >SINCE THIS *CANNOT*HAPPEN* --
it seemed necessary, since some people didn't get it the first time:
: I think that your knowledge in the area is a bit green.
That is not a refutation.
-- --- "It's difficult ... you need to be united to have any strength, but internal issues have to be addressed." --- E. Ray Lewis, on liberalism in America
: >Uncle Al <Uncle...@hate.spam.net> writes: : > : Nothing runs "slow" in any refernce frame. When otherwise identical : > : clocks - one of which sustained a velocity relative to the other - are : > : brought together to compare, one is seen to have less elapsed time : > : than its twin due to its hyperbolic rotation through 4-space.
When I laughed at that,
DarkMatter <DarkMat...@thebarattheendoftheuniverse.org> said: : : I think that your knowledge in the area is a bit green.
I understand that it is possible, if both inertial frames have different velocities, for B to think that A's clocks run slow while A also thinks that B's clocks run slow. But that doesn't involve any bringing together of 2 physical clocks to compare. In that scenario, a "frame" is more like a collection of synchronized clocks at many points, stationary with respect to each other. Very much a different kind of thing from something that comes into existence and turns on as a result of a collision, then turns off and changes into a slip of paper recording the numerical time that it ran up to, and then gets transported magically to anyplace where it might need comparing. You, DarkMatter, need to be less green about all the claims Al made during the course of the argument -- like "the clock IS the frame!" -- though it comes easily into and out of existence (which frames don't). -- --- "It's difficult ... you need to be united to have any strength, but internal issues have to be addressed." --- E. Ray Lewis, on liberalism in America